i will use elementary arithmatic and algebra in this.
a fractional division can be represented as a multiplication of the inversed divisor with the divident. example:
(bracketed numbers are fractions)
2/x = 2 * (1/x)
also 3/2 becomes 3 * (1/2), etc etc
applying this logic
1 / (2/3) becomes 1 * (3/2)
so dx/dy = 1/(dy/dx)
as when you start the simplification process
1 / (dy/dx) becomes 1 * (dx/dy)
and aything multiplied by 1 is the same thing itself
so problem solved!
hathehariken.
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by: thediplomat87Posted on 2009-09-30 at 06:09:32ID: 25458397
This is how to show that dy/dx= 1/(dx/dy), when both are defined.
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Suppose that y=f(x) implicitly defines y as a function of x. differentiate both sides with respect to y:
1 = df(x)/dy
apply the chain rule to the right side of the equation
1= (dx/dy) (df/dx)
or
1= (dx/dy)(dy/dx)
This website shows an actual example of the formula in use on a function.
http://www.answerbag.com/q
Let me know if you have any other questions.