Is there a reason why the server at 192.168.30.12 needs to access the server at 192.168.40.2 via its public address rather than its private address? Is it performing a DNS lookup and resolving the public address?
The reason I ask is that I don't believe that you can perform "hairpin" flows on traffic that is not IPSEC protected. I'm not 100% on that since I've never tried that before but I haven't been able to find any examples on non VPN traffic doing this.
Would it be possible to send the traffic from 192.168.30.12 straight to 192.168.40.2?
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by: menreeqPosted on 2007-11-19 at 17:12:21ID: 20316975
Here is the line in the Teleworker instructions for setting up the firewall:
"Particular attention should be paid to the requirement that all UDP ports >= 1024 on the LAN be permitted to reach the public IP of the Teleworker server.
• Failure to configure the firewall properly will result in audio problems (typically one-way audio)."