Thanks for the reply...I dont have a problem as such, just trying to get a grasp on the concepts....my main point of confusion is as follows
my vpn users get an IP in the range of 172.20.0.0/24.....so obviously my ACL's will be based on that subnet as the source, and anywhere else as a destination....If I enable the ACL, and it into the DAP that restricts a certain set of users.....does this ACL only apply when used in DAP processing?
for example, i might have my IT group that i want to have full access to every resource in the business, but i might have a HR group who needs access only to a couple of resources....when they dial in, they each get an IP in the above mentioned range...If i specify ACL's based on that range, and assign them into individual DAP's, does this then only take affect when the DAP processes? so the ACL that is specified in the HR DAP, wont affect the IT DAP?
Sorry if its confusing, my head is a little lost :)
James





by: chukuPosted on 2009-08-25 at 05:53:28ID: 25176981
the above is correct
I do not understand the problem you see here...
once you authenticate a user via VPN as a domain user in AD you know he is as good as any LAN user. he will not be able to use resources in the LAN unless he got the right credentials. you can limit the subnets he will have access to and the ports he is using - all via the ACL for the VPN but he shouldn't be considered as a threat
if you still have a problem here, please specify it and show in code where is the problem