Indirect field reference in SQL statement: Possible??
Posted on 2002-03-05
WITHOUT using VBA and only using Access 2000, can I create a two-table query where the contents of a one field in one table can become the column name or field name in another.
TableOne has the following fields:
Field1 Text 10
Field2 Text 10
Field3 Text 10
TableTwo has one record and one field:
FieldName Text 10 <- Holds the value "Field2"
I want to select only Field2 from table one. I've tried the Eval() function without success:
select eval([TableTwo]![FieldName]) from TableOne
Thanks - gene