Hi there ?

I don't exactly undertand your notation:

1 + a + a^2 + a^3 + ... + a^(phi-1) = 0 (mod n)

the part w/o (mod n) does not depend on n

Secondly, can you prove it for n=1 ?

Cheers,

Sebastian

I don't exactly undertand your notation:

1 + a + a^2 + a^3 + ... + a^(phi-1) = 0 (mod n)

the part w/o (mod n) does not depend on n

Secondly, can you prove it for n=1 ?

Cheers,

Sebastian