I know that is an extremely confusing way to ask a question, so for that I apologize. Here's the thing... I've got an MS Exchange Server which is the Domain Controller. As is standard, each user has their own login and corresponding email address - e.g. John Doe (firstname.lastname@example.org) -
Now, in my business we send out e-mail advertising to people who choose to be on our mailing list. I set up a separate user on the domain called 'email@example.com' which is used to send out these mailings. I set it up in Outlook 2003 so that John Doe can open 'bcast' as a part of his e-mail.
So in Outlook, it shows the 'Mailbox - John Doe' as well as 'Mailbox - bcast'. John Doe has full permissions for the bcast address and e-mail, so he can do whatever he wants to with it. The problem I'm running into is that, occasionally, people will send mail to bcast that needs to be forwarded to someone else. John Doe was unable to do this, with Outlook citing some permissions error.
So I set John Doe up as a delegate of bcast so that John Doe could send e-mail on bcast's behalf. That worked and solved the forwarding problem, but gave rise to another problem. Now when John Doe forwards one of bcast's messages, it states that it was sent on behalf of bcast by John Doe. Well, John Doe would prefer to remain anonymous and the replies should just appear to be coming from bcast.
I sincerely apologize for saying John Doe as much as I have, but it's the simplest way I could think of to put it. So I guess my question is this, how can John Doe send e-mail (forward e-mail) from the bcast account, but from within his own Outlook account, without it stating that it was sent by John Doe? It may very well be that I'm approaching this completely wrong, in which case, please advise.