superblades
asked on
Trigger to copy one field to another in the same table
i need to create a trigger so that when one field is populated it copies that field to another one, e.g.
ive tried the below but to no use
CREATE trigger trgcostcentre
on dbo.tblcostcentre
for update
as
if update(fldcostcentre)
update q
set fldcostcentre_id = fldcostcentre
FROM tblcostcentre.fldcostcentr
INNER JOIN INSERTED i
on i.fldcostcentre_id = q.fldcostcentre_id
ive tried the below but to no use
CREATE trigger trgcostcentre
on dbo.tblcostcentre
for update
as
if update(fldcostcentre)
update q
set fldcostcentre_id = fldcostcentre
FROM tblcostcentre.fldcostcentr
INNER JOIN INSERTED i
on i.fldcostcentre_id = q.fldcostcentre_id
Last Comment
Why not make it a formula field?
ASKER
DonKronos - your right,
thats probably the main cause of it not working - im a novice so im just making them from snippets here and there and trying to 'fudge' them together to work - without success!
How else could i do it?
Puranik p - could you give me an example
Thanks
Superblades
thats probably the main cause of it not working - im a novice so im just making them from snippets here and there and trying to 'fudge' them together to work - without success!
How else could i do it?
Puranik p - could you give me an example
Thanks
Superblades
CREATE TABLE TABLE1
(
myfield varchar(32),
copyfield AS myfield
)
This way whatever value is there in myfield will get copied to copyfield.
This will work for inserts and updates both. No need for a trigger.
(
myfield varchar(32),
copyfield AS myfield
)
This way whatever value is there in myfield will get copied to copyfield.
This will work for inserts and updates both. No need for a trigger.
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Your trying to set q.fldcostcentre_id to a new value but you are using the current value of that column in the join ??? Doesn't that mean that the join to q.fldcostcentre_id will fail until q.fldcostcentre_id is updated ???
Am I reading this wrong???