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Is it possible to assign two public IPs from different ISPs to one private IP?

Posted on 2008-10-10
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Last Modified: 2010-04-02
I am actually pretty sure the answer to this is "No", but I have to be certain.  Basically, I have a server that is located at a remote office with it's own ISP connection and a static NAT.  It is connected to the main office via a point-to-point fiber connection.  Can I use a public IP from the main office and point it to the internal address at the remote office as a secondary NAT so to speak?
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Question by:NRL71
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by:scottbortis
ID: 22689245
I know you can do this with a Cisco IOS 8(x).  It is called hairpinning.  That assumes that you have a VPN connection.  

If it is just a subnet of your existing system, you can have your perimeter security device just route to that I believe using DNS forwarders...I believe.

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by:scottbortis
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http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/asa/asa70/configuration/guide/vpnsysop.html

is the link to cisco hairpinning for future referece to the KB
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by:NRL71
ID: 22689305
It's not a VPN connection - it is a subnet of the network at the remote office connected via a P2P DS3 with 7206 routers terminating them.  I have ASA 5540s at each location for the fw.
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scottbortis earned 500 total points
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Setup an access list on the ASA on the outside of your main site that allows traffic for your subnet.  Then set a route that sends traffic to the internal 7206 router on the other side of that connection.  

i.e. if your host network is 10.1.0.x and your subnetted network was 10.3.0.x you can use a command like the following:

route inside 10.3.0.0 255.255.0.0 10.1.0.3 1

providing that 10.1.0.3 is the 7206 router on your side of the DS3

Then it is just a matter of setting a static route in your ASA to direct traffic to the appropriate subnet.
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