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Gateway of last resort - quick question

Posted on 2009-05-05
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Last Modified: 2012-05-06
We have a few remote sites connected to us via mpls. The users there can get to the internet (their traffic goes through headquarters)

Why is the gateway of last resort set the way it is? I inherited this network and my manager was unable to give me an answer. I'm trying to figure this out, because this router is unable to synch with an ntp server. It can't even ping it.

Thanks
Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0
 
     172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 3 subnets
C       172.16.21.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0.1
C       172.16.22.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0.22
S       172.16.10.0 [1/0] via 63.238.106.222
     63.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 2 masks
C       63.238.106.180/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0
C       63.238.106.181/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0
S       63.238.106.222/32 [1/0] via 63.238.106.181
S*   0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
c2621XM-BR#

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Question by:dissolved
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CCI_IT earned 500 total points
ID: 24310658
because you are connected via MPLS, the default gateway is the external interface that leads to head office. (you said that they get their internet via the head office). There is probably some policy based routing on the ISP end stating that any traffic coming from their Serial 0/0 should have your external int as the next hop. This prevents the machines at that site from leaving their external int and heading straight to another host.
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by:dissolved
ID: 24310705
I see. Makes sense
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