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CCNA Test Question

Posted on 2011-02-18
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If two switches; both have the same VLAN information, and both switches have devices attached from each VLAN. If the Switches are attached via port F0/1 and F0/1 an one end is changed to and access port on one of the switches, what info if any will pass over the connection? I know that the there has to be a trunk between the switch and the router to route the VLANs but I am unsure what effect the connection between the two switches being changed to access on one end has on the information being passed.

Switch 1
Vlan 1

Vlan 10  Ports f0/2 - f0/12

Vlan 20  Ports f0/13 - f0/24

Switch 2
Vlan 1

Vlan 10  Ports f0/2 - f0/12

Vlan 20  Ports f0/13 - f0/24
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Question by:MJcouture
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JAN PAKULA earned 1000 total points
ID: 34928635
there will be no connection- and no data about vlans will pass through you dont have native (Management) vlan on any of the switch

JAN ict tech ma ccna
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by:mrmozaffari
mrmozaffari earned 1000 total points
ID: 34928691
If one end changes to access mode ,for example Sw2 ,fast0/1 changed to Access ,then this port needs a Vlan ID with this command ,switchport access vlan x , so the result will be misconfiguration for the port ,but if you mention special vlan for example vlan 2 for that port and other side (usually by default is "Dynamic Desirable" ) goes to make access ,both will be in access mode.

The answer based on your question is : No ,it is not possible to pass the traffic even based on same vlan because you have misconfiguration.
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by:MJcouture
ID: 34928749
I worded my question poorly. I know the valn data will only pass on trunk links.

I want to know if in the given scenario  A device on Vlan 2 on Switch 1 will  be able to communicate with a device on Switch 2 in VLan 2?
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Expert Comment

by:mrmozaffari
ID: 34928782
No ,I ve answered this already.
It is not possible.
You have misconfiguration.
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Author Closing Comment

by:MJcouture
ID: 34928834
Thanks, I just wanted to make sure.
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