Hi Experts I have come across this site: http://www.gns3-labs.com/2010/06/26/gns3-lab-exercise-eigrp-ospf-route-manipulation/
Company Tapan wants to enable EIGRP AS 1 on R1, R2 and R3. They would like to connectivity between all routers and subnets with the exception of the loopback interface on R1. R3 should NOT be able to communicate with R1’s Loopback interface. Unfortunately Tapan cannot eliminate advertisement of R1’s Loopback interface due to other network dependecies on the other side of R1 (unseen here).
Additionally Tapan is planning to segment the networks between R1, R2 and R3 using OSPF. They would like 2 OSPF areas. The OSPF area between R1 and R2 will be the core (Area 0). The area between R2 and R3 will be Area 1.
Tapan has determined that they’d like to reach R1’s loopback via OPSF. Tapan would like that R1’s Loopback interface be reachable via OSPF ONLY.
Tapan has hired you as the network consultant to configure their required network scenario.
When R3 can communicate with R1’s Loopback using the scenario above, your job is done.
Because R1 is a bit inflexible, the IP and EIGRP configuration is already in place and CANNOT be changed. Only OSPF can be configured on R1 to R2.
Note: Correct me if I mis-interpret from the above Scenario and URL, that between R1, R2 & R3 are configured with EIGRP but R1's loopback Address should NOT be added to the EIGRP routing process...Because Im assuming R1 cannot be removed or maybe does not have the capacity to deal with extra processing or something I think....So adding OSPF which separates via Area 0 & 1 is one way of optimizing making more efficient a network in view of R1's Loopback not required in Eigrp ?
Ive never looked at things in this kind of analogy, which is exactly the knowledge Im trying to grasp...............!!!!!!