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lurezeroFlag for United States of America

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HP Procurve etherchannel

hello, im trying to create an etherchannel between 2 HP Procurve switches.

this is my basic config but i'm doing something wrong. i'm losing access to my 2nd switch. do i have to configure both switches? or only my root?

i have 2 VLANS.
VLAN1 is my default vlan.
VLAN 50 is for a dedicated service i am running.
all current and future VLANs should go through the channel/trunk normally

trying to etherchannel
Switch1 ports 1and2 and
Switch2 ports 1and2

running config:

trunk 1-2 Trk1 LACP
vlan 1
 tagged Trk1
vlan 50
 tagged Trk1
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Craig Beck
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do i have to configure both switches?
Yes. Both switches must be configured to create the channel group.

The default VLAN is always untagged...
Actually, any VLAN can be the untagged VLAN on an 802.1q link. It just has to be the same VLAN on each end of the link.

One of the challenges in an HP-Cisco environment is the terminology. What HP calls a "trunk", Cisco calls "Etherchannel".  And what Cisco calls a "trunk", HP calls "tagging".

Very annoying. :-)
@don - the default VLAN is the native VLAN, and to configure the native VLAN on a HP switch it must be untagged on the port.

Any VLAN 'can' be untagged on the port, that is correct, but it will then be the default VLAN - ie, any traffic which isn't tagged in a particular VLAN gets put on the 'default' VLAN.
the default VLAN is the native VLAN,
Sorry Craig, but I must disagree. The "default VLAN" is always VLAN 1. The native VLAN can be any VLAN you want.  HP does not use the term "native" for some reason. They simply refer to is as the "untagged VLAN on an 802.1q link".

and to configure the native VLAN on a HP switch it must be untagged on the port.
I agree with this.

Any VLAN 'can' be untagged on the port, that is correct, but it will then be the default VLAN - ie, any traffic which isn't tagged in a particular VLAN gets put on the 'default' VLAN.
Again, I disagree. If an untagged frame is received on an 802.1q port, that frame will be considered a member of the VLAN that is identified as the "untagged" VLAN for that port.

The "default" VLAN is always VLAN 1. From the HP Advanced Traffic Management Guide:

"You can change the name of the default VLAN, but you cannot change the default VLAN’s VID (which is always “1”)."
Ok so you're disagreeing on terminology, not function.

HP call the default VLAN what Cisco call the native VLAN.  Confusingly though VLAN1 is called 'Default VLAN' also, but that is only because it's the ONLY VLAN on the switch when it is booted with no config.

Therefore you 'can' change the default VLAN, as it will be the native VLAN.
HP call the default VLAN what Cisco call the native VLAN.
Once again, sorry, but the documentation does not support that statement.  In none of the documentation I've read does HP refer to the untagged VLAN as "default VLAN" (or what the IEEE defined as "native VLAN").  For example, it the description of 802.1q ports:

"A port can be a member of one untagged, port-based VLAN. All other port-based VLAN assignments for that port must be tagged."

No reference to "default VLAN"

I understand your point, and it would be nice if HP complied with the IEEE in their documentation and refer to the untagged VLAN as "native". But (I think) using "default VLAN" in this context could be confusing since it is already defined for a different purpose.
As I said... just terminology :-)
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jburgaard

What is important:
both switches must be configured the same way in both ends to carry both vlans, could be
vlan1 TAG & vlan 50 TAG  or
vlan 1 UNTAG & vlan 50 TAG
Avatar of lurezero

ASKER

thanks all for the input. sorry little confused.
this is my running config

VLAN 1
name "default_vlan"
untagged 1-10, 16-48 >>> ports members of VLAN1 only.
ip address x.x.x.x x.x.x.x
no untagged 11

VLAN 50
name "service"
untagged 11     >>> port member of only VLAN50. this is correct
tagged 12-15    >>> ports members of VLAN1 and VLAN50 which is what i want
no ip address

confusion: if i tag VLAN1 then all ports in VLAN1 will carry all VLANs current and future correct? and this would not be desired.

"VLAN50 tag" i understand this since the ports on this VLAN50 will carry 1 and 50.

what about the trunks? they dont need to be tagged? looking at the first post craig says "untagged trk1". doesnt "untag" mean member of only 1 VLAN? i would need the trunk/etherchannel to carry all VLANs however...

i want to make sure SW1 ports 1 and 2 will trunk/etherchannel with SW2 ports 1 and 2 and carry all VLANs normally.

thanks again
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thanks all i finally understood it.