Does the code delete the table in your FE database or the BE database?
Richard Daneke
The code can be called from the VBA in the front end. You would have to create an instance of the backend database and call the code from the front end VBA connection.
If the code to delete a BE table were to be run from the FE database, wouldn't it just delete the linked table info and not the be table data?
pcalabria
ASKER
Thanks all. I was trying to delete a table in the BE. I wrote code in the BE and hoped to run it from the FE.
I solved the problem by writing different code in the FE do delete the BE table. I never found a way to run the code from the FE.
<<I solved the problem by writing different code in the FE do delete the BE table. I never found a way to run the code from the FE. >>
Well to answer that, the simpliest way is to set a VBA reference to your BE DB, at wich point you'd then be able to execute procedures in the BE.
If your dealing with code that works with objects in the curent DB (in this case the FE) then it's pretty stright forward. But if in the called code DB (in this case the BE), you would need to be very careful with your coding. You can lookup CodeDB() in the on-line help for additional comments.
The other way would be to invoke a second instance of Access with OLE automation, then execute the code.
Neither of those is really attractive for several reasons, so the best answer is to simply move the code into the FE.
With DAO or DML SQL statements, it's very easy to manipulate tables in a BE DB.