UDP vs ICMP speed

Hello,
If a ping determines that the round trip time is 2 ms, assuming that the connection is equally fast in both directions, would it be reasonable to assume that the one-way time for a UDP packet would be the ping time / 2 ?

Wondering because it's actually really annoying to measure how quickly a UDP packet takes to deliver if the destination/source aren't on the same timezone/OS.
stevedellAsked:
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Don JohnstonInstructorCommented:
You could.  As long as you understand that's not an actual measurement of one-way time.

For example, if your daily commute to work is one hour then that would mean the one-way time is 30 minutes.  Which is probably close, but there's no guarantee of that one-way time.  It could be 45 minutes to get to work and 15 to get home.
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stevedellAuthor Commented:
Yup makes sense, thanks Don
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