I am somewhat inexperienced with networking and have been tasked with setting up a separate subnet and VLAN for our IP phone system. In addition to our default VLAN (1), I've setup a new voice VLAN (6). We need for our phone server and associated hardware to all live on VLAN 6. The phone hardware all connects to a single switch (we'll call switch A) dedicated to phone hardware. That switch connects to a second switch (we'll call switch B) which includes a mix of VLAN 1 and 6 traffic. Switch B connects to a switch on our server rack (we'll call switch C) which lastly has two connections to our gateway, one for each subnet.
I think that I have things configured correctly, but would appreciate confirmation that no traffic from the default VLAN should be affecting the phone hardware. I have the following in place:
- uplink to B: VLAN 1 untagged, VLAN 6 tagged
- all other ports (for phone equipment): VLAN 6 untagged
- all ports: VLAN 1 untagged, VLAN 6 tagged
- downlink to B: VLAN 1 untagged, VLAN 6 tagged
- uplink to gateway (subnet .6.x): VLAN 6 untagged
If I have all phone equipment plugged into VLAN 6 untagged ports, does that ensure that this traffic is exclusive to that VLAN? Also, should the connections between switches not pass via VLAN 6 untagged ports?
Thanks in advance, and please let me know if I can clarify anything.