Can This Code Work Using an Anonymous Function?

This works:

<script>

$(document).ready(function() {
	
	const fetchData = () => {
	  const promise = new Promise((resolve, reject) => {
		setTimeout(() => {
		  resolve("Loose Cannon Fitness");
		}, 100);
	  });
	  return promise;
	};
	
	
	setTimeout( async () => {
	  console.log("Smith and Gone");
	  var text = await fetchData();
	  console.log(text);
	}, 200);


});

</script>

What I'm attempting to do is get a better understanding of Callbacks, Promises and Async / Await(s).

To do that, I started with a very basic example and just built on that - adding / editing things in order to match what represented the new paradigm.

Here's the basic Callback:

$(document).ready(function() {
	
	x = function(cb) {
		setTimeout(function() {
			console.log("Smith and Gone");
			cb();
		}, 200);
	}

	y = function() {
		console.log("Loose Cannon Fitness");
	}
	
	x(y);
	
});

Here's the same result structured using ES6:

$(document).ready(function() {
	
	x = (cb) => {
		setTimeout(function() {
			console.log("Smith and Gone");
			cb();
		}, 200);
	}

	let y = () => {
		console.log("Loose Cannon Fitness");
	}
	
	x(y);
	
});

Here it is written using Promises:

const fetchData = () => {
  const promise = new Promise((resolve, reject) => {
	setTimeout(() => {
	  resolve("Loose Cannon Fitness");
	}, 100);
  });
  return promise;
};

setTimeout(() => {
  console.log("Smith and Gone");
  fetchData()
  .then(text => {
	console.log(text);
  });
}, 200);

And here it is written using an Async / Await dynamic:

$(document).ready(function() {
	
	const fetchData = () => {
	  const promise = new Promise((resolve, reject) => {
		setTimeout(() => {
		  resolve("Loose Cannon Fitness");
		}, 100);
	  });
	  return promise;
	};
	
	setTimeout( async () => {
	  console.log("Smith and Gone");
	  var text = await fetchData();
	  console.log(text);
	}, 200);

});

Just for the sake of drill, I did this:

$(document).ready(function() {
		
	const fetchData = () => {
		setTimeout(function() {
			console.log("Loose Cannon Fitness");
		}, 200);
	}

       setTimeout( async () => {
       console.log("Smith and Gone");
       var text = await fetchData();
       console.log(text);
      }, 200);
 
});

What I wanted to do was make "fetchData" a regular ES6 function as opposed to something that was incorporating a Promise.

The result was an error that looked like this:

Smith and Gone
stunt.php:54 undefined
stunt.php:25 Loose Cannon Fitness

Line #54 was "console.log(text)."

I'm assuming that "undefined" is a result of the fact that "await" is expecting a Promise.

Is that correct?

That said, is there a way to do what I've got written above where my "setTimeout" function works as it "awaits" fetchData written as an anonymous funtion?

This isn't something I would use in a practical setting. Rather, it's something I'm putting together for my own edification

What do you think?

In an effort to figure it out for myself, I tried this:

	const fetchData = () => {
		setTimeout(function() {
			//console.log("Loose Cannon Fitness");
			//var text = "Loose Cannon Fitness";
			//return text;
			return "Loose Cannon Fitness";
		}, 200);
	}

That didn't work.

I tried this:

	const fetchData = () => {
		var text="";
		setTimeout(function() {
			//console.log("Loose Cannon Fitness");
			var text = "Loose Cannon Fitness";
		}, 200);
		return text;
	}

I realize that I'm all over the map. But what I'm trying to nail down is the way in which "fetchData" would need to be constructed if I crafted it without a Promise. Is that even possible? Does "await" mandate a Promise in order for it to work?