I have an electrical appliance (it's a CPAP machine) that's labelled its input power as:
100-240V, 0.3-0.5A, 50-60Hz

Can the Omars 40200mAh powerbank below support (ie power) the above CPAP?
https://www.ebay.com.sg/itm/283550204371?ul_noapp=true

From youtube url below, appears that Omars powerbank's AC output gives
110-230V, with amperage unspecified:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b4QE44yEstI

Does the powerbank auto-adjust its amperage output??

Just don't want to burn / cause over-current to the CPAP machine as this
voids the warranty

Hello and Good Afternoon Everyone,

            As an extension from a previously closed post, I recently read a theory which is being thrown around to help explain why Japanese women raised in Japan have very little breast cancer, while (genetically) Japanese women raised in the US have about the same rate as European-American women.   The theory suggest that plastics leach a material that mimics estrogen.   As clearly indicated within a previously closed post, the ingestion of micro-plastics over an extended period of time can certainly lead to a variety of physical abnormalities.  That said, I am wondering how micro-plastics can mimic estrogen.  Does this happen at a molecular level, meaning, the micro-plastics take on a similar structure as estrogen?  Or, does it try to mimic estrogen at a functional level?

            Any feedback given here will be greatly appreciated.

            Thank you

             George

The HTML5 canvas is an element that can generate graphics on the fly with JavaScript.

An example of it being used to graph equations can be found here: http://matt.might.net/articles/rendering-mathematical-functions-in-javascript-with-canvas-html/

I'm trying to figure out what math I will need to take to use the canvas to create interactive applications.

U = {digits}
E = {-3, -2, -1, 0, ...}

What are digits?

What is E intersection U

Is this Statistical Question as simple as i hope it is...

If I have a 5 Minute Time Bar for measuring trade volume within a Stock Symbol (any symbol)

Which is 300 seconds in total (5 x 60 seconds in a minute = 300)  

and i divide the 300 seconds into 10 equal segments of time -- 30 seconds each

and i measure the buying volume that took place from trades during EACH of the 10 segments --- HOW DO I MEASURE THE RATE OF BUYING PER SEGMENT IN RELATION TO THE 10 SEGMENTS to quantify how smooth was the trading done... Measure the Variance ? How do i measure the consistency of the buying ?

For example:

If each of the 10 segments of 30 seconds had 1000 shares traded then the rate of trade volume consistency of trading per each segment would be exact or the same rate flow of volume

1000  - 1st segment
1000
1000
1000
1000
1000
1000
1000
1000
1000 - 10th segment

But in the real world you get more inconsistent flow something like this... and i would like to understand how to measure the variance here ?

1250 - 1st segment
800
900
1600
550
1700
1250
1350
1100
1500 - 10th segment

Kite flying for the kids at church. If it is too windy it won't work well. Trying to catch a slightly windy day and access to kids will be a very hit and miss. So, on a non windy day, I know from my younger years that the air flow and movement of air is above the ground. If you can run with the kite string until you get the kite high enough it will progress higher.
So on a non windy day how many feet high would the kite need to be before the air flow takes the kite to higher levels. I once had a kite so high you could barely see it with the naked eye.

We have an Igloo cooler and dispute over the size. The interior measurements are 34 inches long, 11 inches deep, 14 inches wide. We need that calculated to quarts.

Any idea how to do the attached question ?  I have left this question in my assignment and I don't have any idea on it ?

Thx
Question.png

So I must disclaim that I know that this is not an idea solution, however wanted to get some science and technical terms correct for running two networks off one NIC card as a work around to having VLAN and/or second router.  Again, this is NOT how I would do things, but for some home user wanting to run lets say a network off of another network for testing that it can be done this way because of how layer 2 works.  The layer 2 part is what I am most interested in, but wanted to get some expert opinions and why it works.

So a home user has a PC that is hooked into a dumb switch.  The dumb switch then goes to a normal home router, however one port goes to a switch to a garage for instance.  The home network is 192.168.1.0 and the garage is 10.10.10.0 that runs some devices that do not need internet.  Just needs to be able to send and receive data, and those devices might have another device down the line like a switch with more devices.  Now I know that you can set the NIC card on the computer to be the main IPv4 of 192.168.1.10 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 8.8.8.8 etc on the main page and on the advanced tab you can add a secondary IP of 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.0 no gateway and it will route the traffic to that network with zero issues and normal LAN traffic will go out the other direction.

I guess call it a proof of concept, but it allows this happen because it is only doing layer 2 and switched go off of MAC addresses so that traffic will never hit the router for this …

I have a cash projection model in Excel.
I have around 10 years of monthly data.
There are around 10 sources of cash and around 10 uses of cash.
I have determined the type of distribution which best fits each of the 20 series.
I have calculated the pertinent statistical parameters of each of the 20 series (e.g. mean or mode, standard deviation, etc.)
I have fitted the selected distributions with their respective parameters.
Some of the series have a normal distribution around a relatively high mean value.
Some of the series have a more Rayleigh or Weibull distribution - always positive but not symmetrical.

The purpose of the model is to predict the cash position over each of the next 12 months.
In some cases, a series has a growth factor to be included.

Each month, for each series, the current actual value is appended resulting in a new series of actual values.

Then an expected value is calculated for each of the next 12 months.

The question is:
Given a random series with known distribution parameters, what is a good way of generating expected value predictions?

In some cases, it appears that the best prediction is the current value.
However, if there's an outlier in the current value, this doesn't work well.